Exam : MBS MB7-223

March 8th, 2010

Exam : MBS MB7-223
Title : Navision 4.0 Warehouse Management
Version : Demo
1. If you delete a put-away instruction or some of the lines in an instruction, how can you find the lines again?
A. You cannot find the lines again: therefore, do not delete put-away instructions.
B. You can recreate the lines only from the posted receipt.
C. You can recreate the lines both from the posted receipt or the put-away worksheet.
D. You can recreate the lines only from the put-away worksheet.
Answer: C
2. Which criteria does the program not use when it suggests bins for put-away?
A. The put-away template that warehouse management has set up for the warehouse.
B. The weight, cubage and special storage requirements of the item or stockkeeping unit.
C. The distance of the bin from the shipping area.
D. The capacity, bin type and bin ranking of the bins.
Answer: C
3. The program keeps separate records for all but one of the following:
A. Registered put-aways
B. Posted warehouse shipments
C. Registered picks
D. Registered cross-docks
Answer: D
4. On a warehouse put-away, why would you use the function Split Line on a line with Action Type Place?
A. To place some of the items in a different bin than that suggested by the program.
B. To indicate that two different warehouse employees must put the items away in different bins.
C. To put away an item that was out of place.
D. To take some of the items from a different bin than that suggested by the program.
Answer: A
5. Company X is a large company with complex warehousing operations, several warehousing locations,and a dedicated warehouse staff. You are a warehouse employee working for Company X in the receiving area. You receive a shipment from a vendor that contains items from eight different purchase orders.Which of the following is the most efficient way for you to create a receipt for these items?
A. Open the individual purchase orders and create warehouse receipts by clicking Functions, CreateWhse. Receipt.
B. Create a new warehouse receipt and use the Get Source Documents function to select the different purchase orders that apply to this receipt.
C. Create a new warehouse receipt and use the Use Filters to Get Src. Docs. function to get all released purchase order lines that come from this vendor and that are due to be received on this date.
D. Create a new warehouse receipt and manually enter a line for each item received.
Answer: C
6. Which action can you perform in the Warehouse Put-away window?
A. Create a put-away.
B. Register a put-away.
C. Get warehouse documents.
D. Get bin content.
Answer: B
7. What does it mean to register a quantity opposed to post a quantity?
A. There is no difference.
B. Register indicates a record within the warehouse, whereas post indicates a record in other parts of the company.
C. Register indicates a record that does not influence the quantity of the item on the item ledger, while post indicates a change in the item ledger quantity.
D. Post changes both the item ledger entries and value ledger entries, whereas register changes only the item ledger entries.
Answer: C
8. Company X is a large company with complex warehousing operations, several warehousing locations,and a dedicated warehouse staff. You are a warehouse employee working for Company X in the receiving area. You receive a shipment from a vendor that contains items from eight different purchase orders.Once you have created the warehouse receipt with all the appropriate lines, you confirm that the quantities in the lines are correct and you post the warehouse receipt.Which of the following does not occur when you post the warehouse receipt?
A. The program creates entries in the Item Ledger Entries table and in the Item Register.
B. The program updates the Qty. to Receive and Qty. Received fields in the appropriate lines in the appropriate purchase orders.
C. If the purchase order is completely received, the program posts the purchase order as invoiced.
D. The program creates a posted warehouse receipt document.
Answer: C

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9. You are a warehouse employee working with a warehouse receipt. When checking the items, you discover that the vendor has shipped only half the number of items that you ordered. To record this in the warehouse receipt, you reduce the number in the Qty. to Receive field to reflect the number of items you actually received.
When you post the warehouse receipt:
A. The program changes the quantity in the Quantity field of the purchase order to reflect the quantity received.
B. The program keeps the line on the warehouse receipt document, sets the Qty. Received field to the actual Qty. Received and sets the Qty. to Receive to the remaining quantity.
C. The program deletes the line from the warehouse receipt document.
D. The program keeps the line on the warehouse receipt document and sets the document status to Completely Received.
Answer: B
10. You have posted a warehouse receipt where some of the lines have a quantity to cross-dock.When the program creates the put-away for these items, what happens?
A. The program specifies that the items be put away to the Cross-Dock bin set up on the location card.
B. The program specifies that the items be put away in the Shipping bin.
C. The program specifies that the items be left in the Receiving bin to be handled later.
D. The program specifies that the items be put away in their respective bins in the warehouse.
Answer: A
11. Company X is a large company with complex warehousing operations, several warehousing locations,and a dedicated warehouse staff. You are a warehouse employee working for Company X in the receiving area. You receive a shipment from a vendor that contains items from eight different purchase orders. Once you have created the warehouse receipt for this shipment, you can do all of the following except:
A. Assign a warehouse employee to the warehouse receipt.
B. Sort the lines according to Item, Document, Bin, or Due Date.
C. Print a copy of the warehouse receipt information.
D. Create a put-away before posting the warehouse receipt.
Answer: D
12. The cross-docking functionality allows you to:
A. Ship items directly from warehouse receipt documents.
B. Make cross-dock items available for internal warehouse movements.
C. View cross-dock opportunities on the warehouse receipt document and designate quantities to be placed in the cross-dock bin at put-away.
D. Create a pick instruction from posted warehouse receipts.
Answer: C
13. Depending on the warehouse setup, a put-away can be created from all these menu items except for one. Which one?
A. Posted Shipments
B. Posted Receipts
C. Internal Put-aways
D. Put-away Worksheets
Answer: A
14. When using the Use Filters to Get Src. Docs. function in the receipt document, you have the option of filtering on different criteria. From the criteria listed below, select the one that you cannot filter on:
A. Item No.
B. Buy-from Vendor No.
C. Planned Receipt Date
D. Direct Unit Cost
Answer: D
15. Select the document that is not one of the source documents for a warehouse receipt:
A. Purchase order
B. Production order
C. Inbound transfer order
D. Sales return order
Answer: B

Test4actual MB7-223 exam Features

March 8th, 2010

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Navision 4.0 Warehouse Management:MB7-223 exam

March 8th, 2010

Product Description
Exam Number/Code: MB7-223
Exam Name: Navision 4.0 Warehouse Management
Questions and Answers:240Q&A
Update Time:2010-1-16
Price:$109.00
Exam Details
The Microsoft Business Solutions exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Microsoft Certified Network Associate Microsoft Business Solutions certification. The Microsoft Business Solutions (MB7-223) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Microsoft Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Microsoft Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Microsoft networking devices.The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

Cisco Express Foundation for Field Engineers:642-383 exam

March 7th, 2010

Product Description
Exam Number/Code: 642-383
Exam Name: Cisco Express Foundation for Field Engineers
Questions and Answers:69Q&A
Update Time:2010-1-16
Price:$89.00
Exam Details
The Cisco Others Certification Cisco Others Certification exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Cisco Certified Network Associate Cisco Others Certification Cisco Others Certification certification. The Cisco Others Certification Cisco Others Certification (642-383) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Cisco Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Cisco networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

Exam : Cisco 642-383

March 7th, 2010

Exam : Cisco 642-383
Title :Cisco Express Foundation for Field Engineers
Update : Demo

1.Which of the following best describe the customer benefits of change management in the operate phase?
A. reduce unnecessary disruption, delays, rework, and other problems by establishing test cases for use in verifying that the system meets operational, functional, and interface requirements
B. improve its ability to make sound financial decisions by developing a business case based on its business requirements and establishing a basis for developing a technology strategy
C. reduce operating costs and limit changerelated incidents by providing a consistent and efficient set of processes
D. improve the return on investment and hasten migration by identifying and planning for necessary infrastructure changes and resource additions, as well as reduce deployment costs by analyzing gaps early in the planning process to determine what is needed to support the system
Answer: C
2. Which of these is the best definition of the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach?
A. It defines the minimum set of services required to successfully deploy and operate a set of Cisco technologies.
B. It determines how best to price Cisco products.
C. It provides partners with a useful way to leverage Cisco resources.
D. It consists of these phases: plan, deploy, support, and troubleshoot.
Answer: A
3. What two types of telephony interfaces are used for PSTN connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Digital
B. Optical
C. Analog
D. CDMA
Answer: AC
4. Which statement correctly describes the keyswitch model of deployment for call processing?
A.All IP Phones are able to answer any incoming PSTN call on any line.
B. PSTN calls are routed through a receptionist or automated attendant.
C. All IP Phones in the system have a single unique extension number.
Answer: A
5. Which definition best describes the implementation service component within the implement phase?
A. providing a stepbystep plan that details the installation and servicecommission tasks required in order to create a controlledimplementation environment that emulates a customer network
B. assessing the ability of site facilities to accommodate proposed infrastructure changes
C. developing and executing proofofconcept tests, validating highlevel infrastructure design, and identifying any design enhancements
D. installing, configuring, and integrating systems components based on an implementation plan developed in earlier phases
E. improving a customer’s infrastructure security system
Answer: D
6. A customer with a small enterprise network of 15 remote sites is trying to optimize its VPN by migrating some remote sites using Frame Relay connections to the Internet to using cable connections to the Internet. Minimizing costs is one of the customer’s highest priorities. Only a moderate amount of IP traffic is passing through the network, most of which is from the remote sites to the central site. IPSec should be used to provide VPN functionality and basic confidentiality is desired.
Based on the traffic patterns, which topology would be the easiest for this customer to set up and manage?
A. full mesh
B. partial mesh
C. pointtomultipoint
D. hubandspoke
Answer: D
7.How can the proper configuration of Voice Mail be tested at an end user’s IP phone?
A. Press the “i” button.
B. Press the “Settings” button.
C. Press the “Services” button.
D. Press the “Messages” button.
Answer: D
8. In what location is it recommended that the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series WLSM be placed?
A. distribution layer
B. core layer
C. access layer
D. network management functional module
Answer: A

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9. Which of these is an accurate list of Cisco Lifecycle Services phases?
A. initiation, planning, analysis, design, development, implementation, operations and maintenance
B. project planning, site assessment, risk assessment, solution selection and acquisition, testing, and operations
C. prepare, plan, design, implement, operate, and optimize
D. analysis, design, deployment, testing, implementation, and production
E. presales, project planning, development, implementation, operations testing, and operations signoff
Answer: C
10. What port role assignment would you make for the Gigabit Ethernet port on the Cisco CE520 used in the Smart Business Communications System?
A. IP Phone and desktop
B. Cisco UC520
C. Cisco CE520
D.Cisco 871W
Answer: B
11. Which two benefits will a client see from adding a Wireless LAN Controller to their Smart Business Communications System? (Choose two.)
A. allow for guest access
B. increase connection speeds
C. add additional access points
D. network management with CLI
Answer: AC
12. Which critical issue should you account for when implementing an integrated network security management design?
A. NAT interoperates with encrypted voice traffic
B. hostbased intrusion detection systems reside in the network
C.all network devices are timesynchronized
D. SNMP community readwrite strings are configured to allow for total management access
Answer: C
13. In which of these phases is a customer’s current network infrastructure assessed?
A. plan
B. design
C. implement
D. prepare
Answer: A
14. In which of these phases is a customer’s current network infrastructure assessed?
A. plan
B. design
C. implement
D. prepare
Answer: A
15. In a new Cisco UC520 installation, when must IP routing be configured?
A. When the service provider assigns static IP information.
B. When the service provider assigns dynamic IP information.
C. When analog PSTN trunks are used.
D. When digital PSTN trunks are used.
Answer: A

Cisco Express Foundation for Field Engineers:642-383 exam

March 7th, 2010

Product Description
Exam Number/Code: 642-383
Exam Name: Cisco Express Foundation for Field Engineers
Questions and Answers:69Q&A
Update Time:2010-1-16
Price:$89.00
Exam Details
The Cisco Others Certification Cisco Others Certification exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Cisco Certified Network Associate Cisco Others Certification Cisco Others Certification certification. The Cisco Others Certification Cisco Others Certification (642-383) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Cisco Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Cisco networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

Test4actual 642-456 exam Features

March 7th, 2010

With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 55 Q&A to your 642-456 exam preparation. In the 642-456 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in CCVP helping to ready you for your successful Cisco Certification.
Exam Details
The CCVP exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Cisco Certified Network Associate CCVP certification. The CCVP (642-456) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Cisco Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Cisco networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

Implementing Cisco Unified Communications Manager Part 2 (CIPT2 v6.0):642-456 exam

March 7th, 2010

Product Description
Exam Number/Code: 642-456
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Unified Communications Manager Part 2 (CIPT2 v6.0)
Questions and Answers:55Q&A
Update Time:2010-1-16
Price:$119.00
Exam Details
The CCVP exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Cisco Certified Network Associate CCVP certification. The CCVP (642-456) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Cisco Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Cisco networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

Test4actual cisco 642-456 exam

March 7th, 2010

1. The Acme Corporation is experiencing poor, choppy audio quality on voice calls placed across their WAN link to and from Madison. What can be done to the Location parameter for Madison to help alleviate this problem?
Select the best response.
A. Increase the audio bandwidth setting in the Location configuration window for Madison.
B. Nothing, the audio bandwidth Location parameter for Madison is not related to the problem.
C. Remove the audio bandwidth parameter in the Location configuration window for Madison.
D. Decrease the audio bandwidth setting in the Location configuration window for Madison.
Answer: D

2. How are Cisco Unified CallManager location parameters used?
Select the best response.
A. Assign directory numbers to devices as they connect to the IP telephony network.
B. Implement call admission control in a centralized call processing deployment.
C. Provide alternate call routing when the primary call path is unavailable.
D. Specify the bandwidth used for audio and video calls.
Answer: B

3. What is the impact of setting an RSVP policy per location pair with a default interlocation RSVP service policy?
Select the best response.
A. additional bandwidth capacity will be added to the default interlocation RSVP service policy
B. the RSVP policy will only be associated with one type of call; for example, if it is associated with video calls, audio calls will not be impacted
C. an RSVP mandatory mid-call retry counter will be added to calls that encounter mid-call retry errors
D. the default interlocation RSVP service policy will be overridden
Answer: D

4. How is recovery from SRST mode back to Cisco Unified Communications Manager call processing accomplished?
Select the best response.
A. The IP phones receive Keepalives from Cisco Unified Communications Manager. They then register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager and cancel their registration with the SRST gateway.
B. The IP phones receive a response to Keepalives sent to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. They then register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager and cancel their registration with the SRST gateway.
C. The SRST gateway receives Keepalives from Cisco Unified Communications Manager. The SRST gateway then rejects the IP phone registrations with instructions to register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
D. The SRST gateway receives a response to Keepalives sent to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. The SRST gateway then rejects the IP phone registrations with instructions to register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
Answer: B

5. Refer to the exhibit. Horst’s Helicopters has a centralized Cisco Unified Communications Manager deployment, with SRST implemented on MGCP gateways at the remotes sites. The WAN link to Seattle has failed. All phones in Seattle have registered to the SRST gateway and can call each other internally, but all outside calls fail.Based on the output shown in the exhibit, what is the most likely solution to the problem?
Select the best response.
1586030050.jpg
A. Configure MCGP fallback on the gateway.
B. Add the isdn outgoing-voice command to the configuration.
C. Call the phone provider and report that the PRI link is down.
D. Enable the outgoing POTS dial peer with the no shutdown command.
Answer: A

6. Refer to the exhibit. On a router running Cisco IOS Release 12.3(14)T, an auto-attendant Tcl script is loaded and a warning message is displayed, stating that the operator parameter has not been registered. See the exhibit for an example of the error.
What must you do to continue?
Select the best response.
1967292769.jpg
A. nothing, the warning may be ignored
B. register the application with the gatekeeper
C. register the application parameters with the gatekeeper
D. register the application parameters with the application
E. register the application with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager
F. register the application parameters with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Answer: A

7. Which debug command can be used to troubleshoot an issue with a Tcl script?
Select the best response.
A. debug tcl script
B. debug call script
C. debug custom script
D. debug voice application
Answer: D

8. Which encryption algorithm does SRTP utilize?
Select the best response.
A. SEAL
B. 3DES
C. IPSEC
D. AES
Answer: D

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9. What is required to effectively use the Cisco CTL client to activate security in an IP telephony network?
Select the best response.
A. H.323 gateway
B. Security Tokens
C. IPSEC
D. Secure SRST
Answer: B

10. When configuring CAPF, user intervention is required when using which authentication mode?
Select the best response.
A. by existing certificate (precedence to LSC)
B. by null string
C. by existing certificate (precedence to MIC)
D. by authentication string
E. user intervention never required
Answer: D

11. Manual IOS SRTP configuration is required on which two types of gateways? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. H.323
B. MGCP
C. PRI
D. SIP
E. SCCP
Answer: AD

12. Which service, when correctly configured in Enterprise Parameters, permits the phone configuration files to be encrypted?
Select the best response.
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Service
B. Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming App Service
C. Cisco CTIManager Service
D. Cisco TFTP Service
E. Cisco CTL Client Service
Answer: D

13. What is the purpose of a region?
Select the best response.
A. to specify only the audio codec used within a site
B. to specify only the video codec used between other specific sites
C. to specify the range of codecs used between all other sites
D. to specify the audio and video codecs used between specific sites
Answer: D

14. When you configure a region to use the G.729 codec, which other codecs can be utilized in the region?
Select the best response.
A. The region can use all the codecs supported by Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. The region will use all of the codecs supported by Cisco Unified Communications Manager as long as a software Media Termination Point is available.
C. The region will only use the codec configured in the region configuration field and any other codecs of equal or lower bandwidth.
D. The region will use the configured codec and the default codec as long as it does not exceed the configured bandwidth for the region.
Answer: C

15. Which statement best describes a Media Termination Point?
Select the best response.
A. A hardware Media Termination Point can be used to transcode a-law to mu-law and vice versa, but both connections must utilize the same packetization periods.
B. A Media Termination Point is an entity that accepts two full-duplex G.711 streams. It bridges the media streams together and allows them to be set up and torn down independently.
C. A Media Termination Point corrects a mismatch in DTMF transport types when using Delayed Offer for inbound SIP calls.
D. In Cisco Unified Communications Manager 6.0, a Media Termination Point is required when two endpoints use a common method for sending DTMF between them such as for all calls using SIP trunks.
E. When using H.323 Fast Start, for inbound and outbound Fast Start, a Media Termination Point is required.
Answer: B

Test4actual cisco 642-383 exam Features

March 4th, 2010

1. A user is unable to connect to the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager via HTTPS. Which two of these might have caused this problem? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. The ip https server command is missing from the running configuration.
B. The ip http secure-server command is missing from the running configuration.
C. The user is trying to launch Cisco Router and Security Device Manager from the inside (secured) interface with a firewall enabled.
D. The user has a privilege level lower than 15.
E. The browser security level is set too high.
Answer: BD

2. Refer to the exhibit. A host on the Sales subnet (10.0.2.0/24) is not able to initiate a web connection to an outside website. According to the network diagram and partial Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager configuration shown in the exhibit, what is the cause of the problem?
754364259.jpg
Select the best response.
A. The dynamic NAT global pool is not configured correctly.
B. The source networks for static NAT are not configured correctly.
C. The administrator has not added an access list to allow the connection.
D. The source network for dynamic NAT is not configured correctly.
Answer: D

3. Users logging into Cisco Router and Security Device Manager should be authenticated using the Cisco ISR local user database. Currently, none of the users can access Cisco Router and Security Device Manager via HTTP. You should check the configuration of which command or commands when attempting to resolve this problem?
Select the best response.
A. ip http secure-server
B. ip http authentication local
C. line vty 0 5
login local
D. aaa new-model
aaa authentication login default local
Answer: B

4. You are troubleshooting OSPF neighbor establishment problems, which are occurring over Frame Relay interfaces that use the default OSPF network type. What should you verify in the router configuration?
Select the best response.
A. the ip ospf network point-to-point statement under the Frame Relay interface
B. the ip ospf priority 0 statement on the Frame Relay interface on the designated router
C. the neighbor statements on the Frame Relay interface
D. the frame-relay map statement on the Frame Relay interface
Answer: D

5. Which critical issue should you account for when implementing an integrated network security management design?
Select the best response.
A. NAT interoperates with encrypted voice traffic
B. host-based intrusion detection systems reside in the network
C. all network devices are time-synchronized
D. SNMP community read-write strings are configured to allow for total management access
Answer: C

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6. You are configuring a VLAN and the switch you are using requires that you do so within the VLAN database. Which command allows you to enter the VLAN database?
Select the best response.
A. Switch# vlan database
B. Switch(config)# vlan database
C. Switch(config-if)# vlan database
D. Switch(vlan)# vlan database
Answer: A

7. Which command assigns a cost value of “17″ to a switch port?
Select the best response.
A. spanning-tree interface fastethernet 5/8 17
B. spanning-tree portcost 17
C. spanning-tree port cost 17
D. spanning-tree vlan 1 cost 17
Answer: D

8. In what location is it recommended that the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series WLSM be placed?
Select the best response.
A. distribution layer
B. core layer
C. access layer
D. network management functional module
Answer: A

9. Which network management tool is designed to allow businesses to manage up to 40 devices?
Select the best response.
A. CiscoWorks Unrestricted
B. CiscoWorks SNMS
C. Campus Manager
D. Resource Management Essentials
Answer: B

10. A customer with a small enterprise network of 15 remote sites is trying to optimize its VPN by migrating some remote sites using Frame Relay connections to the Internet to using cable connections to the Internet. Minimizing costs is one of the customer’s highest priorities. Only a moderate amount of IP traffic is passing through the network, most of which is from the remote sites to the central site. IPSec should be used to provide VPN functionality and basic confidentiality is desired.Based on the traffic patterns, which topology would be the easiest for this customer to set up and manage?
Select the best response.
A. full mesh
B. partial mesh
C. point-to-multipoint
D. hub-and-spoke
Answer: D