CompTIA CompTIA Security+ 2011 sy0-301
Exam Number/Code : sy0-301
Exam Name : CompTIA Security+ 2011
One year free update
Once failed,100% refund
Questions and Answers : 264Q&As
Update Time : 2011-11-8
Price : $79.00

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CompTIA Security+ is an international, vendor-neutral certification that demonstrates competency in:

•Network security
•Compliance and operational security
•Threats and vulnerabilities
•Application, data and host security
•Access control and identity management
•Cryptography
CompTIA Security+ not only ensures that candidates will apply knowledge of security concepts, tools, and procedures to react to security incidents, it ensures that security personnel are anticipating security risks and guarding against them.

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The current version of CompTIA Security+ is exam code SY0-301. The previous version, exam code SY0-201, will be available through Dec. 31, 2011.

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1.Which of the following expansion cards should be installed in a server to allow the server to connect to a SAN via a fiber channel?
A.SATA
B.iSCSI
C.SCSI
D.HBA

2. Which of the following must be done to properly conduct testing of the data backup portion of a disaster recovery plan?
A.Perform an integrity test of backup media.
B.Verify data on backup media can be read.
C.Verify that backups have occurred and were successful via the logs.
D.Restore backed up data to a test server.

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In order to receive CompTIA A+ certification a candidate must pass two exams. The first exam is CompTIA A+Essentials, exam number 220-701. The CompTIA A+ 220-702 exam, Practical Application, is the second exam required in orderfor CompTIA A+ certification candidates to complete their certification in the 2009 Edition of CompTIA A+.

This examination blueprint includes domain weighting, test objectives, and example content. Example topics andconcepts are included to clarify the test objectives and should not be construed as a comprehensive listing of all thecontent of this examination.

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The new exam, CompTIA Security+ SY0-301, is now available at Pearson Vue and Prometric test centers worldwide.

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1. Which of the following is the BEST filtering device capable of stateful packet inspection? 

A. Switch 

B. Protocol analyzer 

C. Firewall 

D. Router 

Answer: C  

2. An employee’s workstation is connected to the corporate LAN. Due to content filtering restrictions, the employee attaches a 3G Internet dongle to get to websites that are blocked by the corporate gateway.

Which of the following BEST describes a security implication of this practice? 

A. A corporate LAN connection and a 3G Internet connection are acceptable if a host firewall is installed. 

B. The security policy should be updated to state that corporate computer equipment should be dual-homed. 

C. Content filtering should be disabled because it may prevent access to legitimate sites. 

D. Network bridging must be avoided otherwise it may join two networks of different classifications. 

Answer: D

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1. A project manager is completing a project schedule network diagram using dummy activities to show all logical relationships.

Which of the following tools is the project manager using?A.ADM

B.WBS

C.AON

D.PDM

Answer: A 

2. Which of the following would be the benefit of saving a project binder in a centralized location?

A. Provides an opportunity for another project manager to review the binder and make corrections 

B. Provides an opportunity for team members to review their contributions 

C. Provides other project managers the opportunity to review the project information 

D. Provides stakeholders the opportunity to modify the change request forms 

Answer: B  

3. A project is cancelled unexpectedly prior to completion.

Which of the following would the project manager use to document the details of the project closure?

A. Histogram

B. Postmortem

C.SWOT analysis

D. Project scope statement

Answer: B  

4. Which of the following is the method for determining the critical path of a project?  

A. Determine the BAC of a project and the AC at completion; calculate the difference 

B. Examine the project schedule and determine the two most critical milestones: then calculate the total time form the start of the first determined milestone to the end of the second 

C. Examine the project schedule and place all scheduled activities on one time-line, regardless as to whether they are being implemented in parallel. Then calculate the total time taken 

D. Examine the project schedule and calculate the total time taken for all scheduled activities, from commencement of the project to closure, with zero float 

Answer: D 

5. The formal process that must be performed at the end of the project to provide the final inspection of the product is called:

A. methodology verification 

B. scope verification 

C. change verification 

D. system verification 

Answer: B 

6. A key stakeholder has asked the project manager to complete the project a week earlier than expected. To accomplish this objective, the project manager will have to ask the project team to work overtime, which will increase the cost of the project.Which of the following should be the NEXTA. Ask the

key stakeholder for more funding for the project 

B. Ask the project team to work overtime to finish the project 

C. Obtain an approved change control document before changing the project schedule 

D. Agree to complete the project using the new schedule 

Answer: C  

7. Three of the team members are having a conflict with each other.Which of the following steps should the project manager take to minimize the conflict?

A. Resolve the conflict by terminating the team members 

B. Ignore the conflict and keep working on the project 

C. Encourage the team members to resolve the conflict 

D. Ask the project sponsor to resolve the conflict 

Answer: C 

8. In order to validate a project, which of the following is required to complete a stakeholder analysis?

A. Verify the project stakeholder needs, wants, and expectations are turned into requirements 

B. Verify the project stakeholders have been selected by the project manager to provide the best scope for the project 

C. Verify the project team members will be able to provide the expected stakeholder results 

D. Verify the project stakeholders needs are documented in the work breakdown structure (WBS)

Answer: D

Network security

Compliance and operational security

Threats and vulnerabilities

Application, data and host security

Access control and identity management

Cryptography

CompTIA Security+ not only ensures that candidates will apply knowledge of security concepts, tools, and procedures to react to security incidents; it ensures that security personnel are anticipating security risks and guarding against them.

JK0-018 is also called “CompTIA Security+ E2C (2011 Edition)”, is a CompTIA Security exam.

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A. digital audio from a component to a receiver. 

B. analog video from a component to a receiver. 

C. analog audio from a component to a receiver. 

D. digital video from a component to a receiver. 

Answer: A 

2. Which of the following video outputs from a media PC provide the BEST picture quality, when connecting the media PC to a projector? 

A. SVGA 

B. VGA 

C. S-Video 

D. DVI 

Answer: D 

3. Which of the following communication methods will provide the maximum bandwidth for video streaming through a media extender? 

A. 100BaseT Ethernet 

B. 802.11g 

C. Z-Wave 

D. Bluetooth 

Answer: A 

4. RG-6 coaxial cable is typically used in all of the following applications: 

A. multi-room audio, telephone, intercom and temperature control. 

B. thermostat, CCTV, smoke detectors and keypads. 

C. home theater, lighting control and multi-room audio. 

D. video, digital cable, and satellite applications. 

Answer: D 

5. Which of the following BEST describes CAT5e? 

A. Contains four pair of wires of various gauge 

B. Contains two wires in a red fireproof jacket 

C. Contains four twisted pairs of wires 

D. Contains eight wires within a thick jacket with a rip cord 

Answer: C 

6. When configuring surround sound systems, speaker delay is used to compensate for speaker: 

A. distance. 

B. power. 

C. size. 

D. efficiency. 

Answer: A 

7. According to Ohm’s Law, which of the following is correct? 

A. As voltage increases, resistance decreases  

B. As amperage decreases, resistance decreases 

C. As resistance decreases, amperage increases 

D. As resistance increases, voltage increases 

Answer: C 

8. Each time the distance from the speaker is doubled, volume decreases by: 

A. 3dB. 

B. 6dB.  

C. 12dB. 

D. 24dB. 

Answer: B 

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And you should find which certification is right for you at the same time. CompTIA certifications are vendor-neutral credentials that cover the specific tasks and knowledge required for IT jobs, and is well-recognized in the industry. IT professionals with certifications on their resume command better jobs earn higher salaries and have more doors open to new multi-industry opportunities. The average salary for a CompTIA A+ certified tech in 2010 was $50,364, according to a ComputerWorld salary survey.

CompTIA Network+ certification proves knowledge of networking features and functions. Exam JK0-016 is one of the two essential exams for this certification. JK0-016 covers network technologies, media and topologies, devices, management, tools and security. This exam contains 100 questions and you need to get at least 720 scores then you can pass this exam. It sounds not easy to get this certification, so a proper JK0-016 study material is definitely necessary for most of the candidates. To get a nice material, you may have searched for long time on the internet.

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A. Private key 

B. Symmetric key 

C. Recovery key 

D. Public key 

Answer: D  

2. Which of the following protocols only encrypts password packets from client to server? 

A. XTACACS 

B. TACACS 

C. RADIUS 

D. TACACS+ 

Answer: C  

3. Where are revoked certificates stored? 

A. Recovery agent 

B. Registration 

C. Key escrow 

D. CRL 

Answer: D  

4. DRPs should contain which of the following?  

A. Hierarchical list of non-critical personnel 

B. Hierarchical list of critical systems 

C. Hierarchical access control lists 

D. Identification of single points of failure 

Answer: B  

5. A system administrator could have a user level account and an administrator account to prevent: 

A. password sharing. 

B. escalation of privileges. 

C. implicit deny. 

D. administrative account lockout. 

Answer: B  

6. Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate data loss if a portable device is compromised? 

A. Full disk encryption 

B. Common access card 

C. Strong password complexity 

D. Biometric authentication 

Answer: A  

7. Which of the following protocols should be blocked at the network perimeter to prevent host enumeration by sweep devices? 

A. HTTPS 

B. SSH 

C. IPv4 

D. ICMP 

Answer: D  

8. Which of the following is specific to a buffer overflow attack? 

A. Memory addressing 

B. Directory traversal 

C. Initial vector 

D. Session cookies 

Answer: A

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The following are the topics covered in the real exam:　

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1. A project manager is completing a project schedule network diagram using dummy activities to show all logical relationships. Which of the following tools is the project manager using?  

A. ADM 

B. WBS 

C. AON 

D. PDM 

Answer: A  

2. Which of the following would be the benefit of saving a project binder in a centralized location.? 

A. Provides an opportunity for another project manager to review the binder and make corrections. 

B. Provides an opportunity for team members to review their contributions. 

C. Provides other project managers the opportunity to review the project information. 

D. Provides stakeholders the opportunity to modify the change request forms. 

Answer: B  

3. A project is cancelled unexpectedly prior to completion. Which of the following would the project manager use to document the details of the project closure? 

A. Histogram 

B. Postmortem 

C. SWOT analysis 

D. Project scope statement 

Answer: B  

4. Which of the following is the method for determining the critical path of a project? 

A. Determine the BAC of a project and the AC at completion; calculate the difference. 

B. Examine the project schedule and determine the two most critical milestones: then calculate the total time form the start of the first determined milestone to the end of the second. 

C. Examine the project schedule and place all scheduled activities on one time-line, regardless as to whether they are being implemented in parallel. Then calculate the total time taken. 

D. Examine the project schedule and calculate the total time taken for all scheduled activities, from commencement of the project to closure, with zero float. 

Answer: D  

5. The formal process that must be performed at the end of the project to provide the final inspection of the product is called: 

A. methodology verification. 

B. scope verification. 

C. change verification. 

D. system verification. 

Answer: B  

6. A key stakeholder has asked the project manager to complete the project a week earlier than expected.

To accomplish this objective, the project manager will have to ask the project team to work overtime, which will increase the cost of the project. Which of the following should be the NEXT?  

A. Ask the key stakeholder for more funding for the project. 

B. Ask the project team to work overtime to finish the project. 

C. Obtain an approved change control document before changing the project schedule. 

D. Agree to complete the project using the new schedule. 

Answer: C  

7. Three of the team members are having a conflict with each other. Which of the following steps should the project manager take to minimize the conflict? 

A. Resolve the conflict by terminating the team members. 

B. Ignore the conflict and keep working on the project. 

C. Encourage the team members to resolve the conflict. 

D. Ask the project sponsor to resolve the conflict. 

Answer: C  

8. In order to validate a project, which of the following is required to complete a stakeholder analysis? 

A. Verify the project stakeholder needs, wants, and expectations are turned into requirements. 

B. Verify the project stakeholders have been selected by the project manager to provide the best scope for the project. 

C. Verify the project team members will be able to provide the expected stakeholder results. 

D. Verify the project stakeholders needs are documented in the work breakdown structure (WBS) 

Answer: D

CompTIA Project+ test details:

Number of questions: 100

Length of test:       90 minutes

Passing score:       70

Exam codes:        PK0-003

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The candidate job roles include network administrator, network technician, network installer, help desk technician and IT cable installer. Companies such as Dell, HP, Ricoh, Sharp and Xerox recommend or require CompTIA Network+ for their networking technicians. It is obviously valuable to own a CompTIA Network+ certification.

The CompTIA Network+ certification exam contains 100 questions, time limited in 90 minutes. The established passing score is 720. To get the certification, you need to pass two exams first: N10-004 and JK0-016. CompTIA officially recommend that the candidates had better have at least nine month networking experience with CompTIA A+ certification.

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